My two-year-old daughter is at a
stage in life where she likes trying on different clothes. One day, I was
working on my computer when she asked if she could go to her room to change
into a dress, and I said that would be fine. So she disappeared from my view,
and after a minute or so I hear her say, “Dad, this dress doesn’t fit.” I
wasn’t quite ready to stop what I was doing, so I told her to try a different one.
She obliged. But then, a couple of minutes later, she called out from her
bedroom, “Dad, this dress doesn’t fit either.” I told her to try yet another,
and again she obliged. But a third time, I heard her say, “Dad, this doesn’t
fit either!” and she was clearly getting exasperated. So I went into the room
and discovered the problem: she was trying to put them on by stepping into them
and pulling them all the way up to her shoulders, but the neckline was too
small. The only way to wear these dresses was to put them on over your head. Fortunately,
this meant that we were able to find a dress that fit her, once she put it on
in the right direction.
Similarly, I believe that the
Christian church has yet to find a theological understanding of homosexuality
that “fits.” For the past fifty years or so, several options have been tried,
but they all seem to come up short either in their faithfulness to Scripture or
in the positive impact they are supposed to have in the lives of gay people. [E1]
I submit that this is because we have been coming at the question “from the
wrong direction.” The primary questions that frame the debate tend be some
version of these: “Is homosexual behavior sinful?” or “Is homosexuality a part
of God’s good creation?” The problem with these questions is that they don’t
get to the heart of the issue at stake. The primary issue at stake is the
meaning of gender. Our sexual ethics only make sense once we have clarified the
role that gender is supposed to play in our lives.
This may seem like a meaningless distinction on the first reading, but when you really think about it, it runs counter to the way we’ve been conditioned to think about same-gender attraction and marriage for the past forty years. Although questions about sexual attraction and behavior have always been present in the church to some extent, the church was forced to confront with the question of gay rights in a thorough way for the first time in response to the sexual revolution in the 1960s and 1970s. This movement challenged not only the legal restrictions against same-gender sex but also the moral teachings that the church had always raised against it. Naturally, when the church responded to this challenge, we answered in the same frame in which the question was posed to us: by treating homosexuality as a subcategory within the broader issue of sexuality. In the Mennonite Church, this analysis began in the 1970s. Our church responded to this "crisis" by commissioning a study on sexuality, called “Human Sexuality in the Christian Life.” [E2] This study was explicit that it was not just a treatise on "homosexuality" but one on human sexuality in general, and that frame dominated the way that questions about same-gender attraction and sexual behavior were engaged.
From that time until the present, the theological debate about homosexuality within the Christian community has been consumed by questions about sex rather than gender. For example, it delves into questions about where our sexual desires come from, how we are expected to manage them, etc. But I believe that all of this is only tangential to the core issues at stake. On this score, I find myself in alignment with Mark Yarhouse, a conservative [E3] Christian theologian and psychologist, who states, “Ultimately, does the cause of same-sex attraction fundamentally change the Christian sexual ethic? No. We are called to live the way that God reveals is good for us in terms of sexuality and sexual behavior.” [E4]
This may seem like a meaningless distinction on the first reading, but when you really think about it, it runs counter to the way we’ve been conditioned to think about same-gender attraction and marriage for the past forty years. Although questions about sexual attraction and behavior have always been present in the church to some extent, the church was forced to confront with the question of gay rights in a thorough way for the first time in response to the sexual revolution in the 1960s and 1970s. This movement challenged not only the legal restrictions against same-gender sex but also the moral teachings that the church had always raised against it. Naturally, when the church responded to this challenge, we answered in the same frame in which the question was posed to us: by treating homosexuality as a subcategory within the broader issue of sexuality. In the Mennonite Church, this analysis began in the 1970s. Our church responded to this "crisis" by commissioning a study on sexuality, called “Human Sexuality in the Christian Life.” [E2] This study was explicit that it was not just a treatise on "homosexuality" but one on human sexuality in general, and that frame dominated the way that questions about same-gender attraction and sexual behavior were engaged.
From that time until the present, the theological debate about homosexuality within the Christian community has been consumed by questions about sex rather than gender. For example, it delves into questions about where our sexual desires come from, how we are expected to manage them, etc. But I believe that all of this is only tangential to the core issues at stake. On this score, I find myself in alignment with Mark Yarhouse, a conservative [E3] Christian theologian and psychologist, who states, “Ultimately, does the cause of same-sex attraction fundamentally change the Christian sexual ethic? No. We are called to live the way that God reveals is good for us in terms of sexuality and sexual behavior.” [E4]
Yarhouse is right. Our ethics
should not be determined by the strength of our desires. Instead, our desires
should be evaluated in terms of our ethics. So how do Christian conservatives evaluate
same-gender ethics in the Bible instead? Some conservative scholars suggest that we ought to shift the focus from "homosexual desire" to “homosexual behavior.” This is
the approach followed by Robert Gagnon, the leading conservative Biblical
scholar on the subject. In the introduction to his book, he says, “The focus of
this book on same-sex intercourse or
homosexual practice, as opposed to
homosexual orientation, is a reflection
of the Bible’s own relative disinterest toward motives or the origination of
same-sex impulses.” [E5]
Gagnon gets us a little closer to the
actual issue at stake, but unbeknownst to him, he still is held captive by the sexual frame of the sexual revolution rather than the way the Bible engages this issue. How is that? Because he is right that the Bible does not address "homosexual desire," but neither does the
Bible use terms like “homosexual practice” or “homosexual behavior.”
Those are modern terms that frame the behavior in terms of the desire. More importantly, that language suffers from being too imprecise. The term "homosexual behavior" subtly conflates two separate factors: a sexual behavior and the gender of the person performing it. To say that "same-gender sexual behavior" is immoral leaves one wondering - what is immoral about it - the behavior itself or the gender of the people engaging in it? Which of these factors is the Bible concerned about?
Let’s start by considering the
sexual behavior. What actions do we actually have in mind when we are evaluating the
morality of “homosexual behavior”? In many cases, the sexual behaviors that gay
couples practice are similar or identical to the sexual behaviors that straight
couples practice. Consider oral sex, as an example. If it is unnatural for two
people to engage in any kind of sexual activity other than vaginal intercourse
between a male and a female, then we would expect the Bible and the Church to
condemn all oral sex, whether it is being practiced by gay couples or straight
couples. But neither the Bible nor the Church make an issue out of this because
it is not the key issue at stake. [E6]
The other factor that is implicit
in the phrase “homosexual behavior” is the gender of the people engaged in that
activity. [E7] That is where the Bible's real
concern lies. Listen to the actual wording of Leviticus 18:22, the first
prohibition against same-gender sex in the Bible. It says, ““You shall not lie with a male as with a
woman.” For better or worse, this passage assumes that the audience – the
“You” – is male. It then forbids the male reader from “lying with” another man as one lies with a woman. The prohibition
is not concerned with the action, “lying with someone,” for it implies that it is
appropriate to perform the same action with a woman. The emphasis is on the
gender of the sexual partner. In other
words, it is not the sex act itself that is forbidden, but it is the gender of
the people who engage it that is of primary concern.
What does this mean? That we have
been going about this whole thing backwards. Just like my daughter couldn’t
find a dress that “fits” because she was trying them all on “feet first,” so
have we struggled to make sense of how the Bible’s ethics could apply to the
healthy and godly same-gender couples that we see in our society. We have been
searching for a more “liberal” sexual ethic in the New Testament, but there is
none to be found. If anything, the New Testament holds followers of Jesus to higher sexual standards than the Older
Testament. However, the New Testament does have some pretty radical things to
say about gender. That is where our
conversation should begin, and it makes all the difference.
So let me propose an alternative question.
Rather than centering our debate around the imprecise concept of “homosexuality”
or even “homosexual behavior,” let’s ask the question, “Do Biblical ethics
allow for two people of the same gender to have sex in any setting?” Better
yet, let’s ask a more important question – whether Biblical ethics would permit
two people of the same gender to get married, with the understanding that sex
would be a part of the marriage package. I believe that it does. Here is my
basic argument as to why:
I.
The
Bible reveals that God did not intend for human behavior to be determined by
gender norms.
II.
The
prohibition against same-gender sex is a gender norm (i.e. a restriction/requirement
imposed solely because of the gender of the people involved).
III.
Therefore,
those who accept the authority of Biblical revelation should not make blanket
prohibitions against same-gender sex, but should remain open to the possibility
that God may call two people of the same gender into the covenant of marriage
and bless their sexual intimacy in that context.
In this post, I have argued the minor premise, that the prohibition against same-gender sex is
a gender norm. That is to say, it is primarily about gender and only
secondarily about sex. I am sure that many of you will have doubts and
questions about the major premise – that the Bible reveals that God did not
intend for human behavior to be determined by gender norms. Already the
objections come to mind! I’d ask you to hold them just a little longer. My next(and longest) post will seek to address just that – what does the Bible have to
say about gender?
End Notes
[E1] I should acknowledge at this point that there are many
gay people who have chosen to follow a conservative interpretation of the
Bible’s teaching on same-gender intimacy and who have been relatively
“successful” with it. I put successful
in scare quotes because this all depends on how you define success. They have
not been successful in changing sexual orientation. This extensive study by the American Psychological Association evaluated a number of “gay
converstion therapy” programs and concluded that they rarely work. However, people
who enter these programs may be able to reduce their sexual drive in general –
if that is considered a good thing – and form meaningful relationships with
others who are going through a significant experience. Of course, this last
piece should be applauded and encouraged, but it doesn’t really have any
bearing on the question at hand.
On the other hand, there are testimonies of people who have
come out of a promiscuous gay lifestyle, accepted a conservative Biblical
interpretation on same-gender intimacy, and have felt that they made the right
decision. Indeed, many of them came to a saving relationship with Christ in the
conversion process. These are testimonies that I take very seriously, and I
praise God for their experience of salvation and freedom. However, I would
submit that it was the promiscuity
that was hurting them, not the fact that the people with whom they were
promiscuous were of the same gender. I’ll address this more extensively in my
sixth post.
Additionally, I recognize that among the gay people who
accept a conservative reading of Scripture, there are several who have been
able to find someone from the opposite sex to whom they are attracted to some
degree, marry them, and enjoy healthy marriages. If these marriages truly are
healthy for both parties, then I do not want to say anything to undermine them.
However, in my personal interactions with such people, I have found that even
in the best of circumstances, they still feel same-gender attraction and they
still have to live with the sense that there is something “wrong” with them.
This is a daily oppressive assault to their dignity, and it ought to be
challenged. For many people who are in these marriages, this becomes
unbearable, and it is not uncommon for them to leave their marriages and their
faith at the same time.
Finally, let’s not forget that there are many gay people on the other side who
have been deeply wounded by the conservative interpretation. Some of them have
left the church and will never come back. Others have joined affirming or
welcoming congregations. Still others suffer silently with their pain – often dealing
with severe depression in the meantime. This is not the focus of my Biblical
series, but I’ll offer one link to gay voices who’ve had this experience.
[E2] The text of this study, Human Sexuality in the
Christian Life, can be found here.
When I say it was produced by the “Mennonite Church,” I am speaking somewhat
anachronistically. My current denomination, the Mennonite Church USA, came into
existence in 2002, when two smaller denominations – the (Old) Mennonite Church
and the General Conference Mennonite Church merged. These denominations were
already talking about merging in the 1980s when the document was produced, and
so the study was done jointly, by members of both groups. For all intents and
purposes, it’s the same church.
[E3] When I use the terms “conservative” and “progressive”
in this blog series, I am using them in a very narrow way, with conservative
indicating that they do not believe that God permits same-gender marriages and
progressives having the opposite view. On the one hand, I hesitate to use such
broad categories in such a limited way and I was I knew of a better
one-adjective description that I could use. On the other hand, it seems to me
that this issue is the line in the sand that most people have drawn to determine
whether they or others are “conservative” or “progressive” Christians. By using
it myself, I’m acknowledging this reality.
[E4] Mark Yarhouse, Homosexuality
and the Christian, p. 30. Generally speaking, I think Mark is one of the
most insightful thinkers on the subject, though I ultimately come out at a
different place than he does.
[E5] Robert Gagnon, The
Bible and Homosexual Practice, p. 37-38.
[E6] The Roman Catholic Church serves as a partial exception
to this, not because it explicitly prohibits oral sex specifically, but it does
seek to regulate sex acts broadly, on the basis of whether or not they lead to
the possibility of procreation, and the rationale for prohibiting sex between
two people of the same gender falls under this rubric. Cf. Humanae Vitae, the
paradigmatic papal encyclical published by Paul VI on the heels of Vatican II.
It would take another blog post entirely for me to give
thorough attention to this issue, but perhaps I should say for now that I do
not find the Catholic understanding of sex to be convincing, and neither does
my church. For example, in the Mennonite document I mentioned in E2, Human Sexuality in the Christian Life,
the section entitled “Sex within the marriage” (2.5.6) says, Thus, Paul does
not view the purpose of sexual intercourse only for the procreation of
children. The sex act has the value of uniting the married couple.” I’ll leave
it at that for now – unless there is considerable demand from my readership to
engage this further.
[E7] The term “homosexuality” itself contributes to the problem. The word ‘homo’ is Greek for “same” and sexuality, of course, refers to sexual desire, but put those together and just get “same sexual desire.” That doesn’t make sense. There is a third concept in the word that is implied but that doesn’t get represented etymologically: gender. This way of talking calls our attention to the “sexual” aspect of it and obscures the “gender” aspect. Part of the reason I insist on using the less familiar term “same-gender marriage” or “same-gender sex” is to put extra emphasis on this overlooked aspect of homosexuality. This does not mean that I believe that people who experience same-gender attraction honor have a same-gender orientation should refrain from using this word themselves. I leave it to them to determine the best self-designation.
[E7] The term “homosexuality” itself contributes to the problem. The word ‘homo’ is Greek for “same” and sexuality, of course, refers to sexual desire, but put those together and just get “same sexual desire.” That doesn’t make sense. There is a third concept in the word that is implied but that doesn’t get represented etymologically: gender. This way of talking calls our attention to the “sexual” aspect of it and obscures the “gender” aspect. Part of the reason I insist on using the less familiar term “same-gender marriage” or “same-gender sex” is to put extra emphasis on this overlooked aspect of homosexuality. This does not mean that I believe that people who experience same-gender attraction honor have a same-gender orientation should refrain from using this word themselves. I leave it to them to determine the best self-designation.
7 comments:
A few questions:
In the second paragraph, two "goodness of fit" criteria are listed: 1) faithfulness to scriptures and 2) positive impact on gay people. Why were those criteria chosen? How are "faithfulness" and "positive impact" measured?
Sentences 1-2, paragraph 2 seems to imply that "Theological understandings of homosexuality are supposed to have a positive impact on the lives of gay people."
What do you believe would be a "positive impact on gay people"? This seems to be a key issue, and perhaps there are unspoken presumptions regarding the ends that the author has in mind? Perhaps the issue at hand is a lack of consensus regarding scripture's presumed impact?
These are insightful questions, but they are difficult to answer because they ask me to provide justification for the criteria that are near the base of my epistemological frame. Why do I value faithfulness to scriptures? Well, because I am a Christian, and I am therefore committed to the narrative provided by the Christian Scriptures. If I attempt to provide external justification for this - e.g. I believe in the Scriptures because they have proven to be rational and accurate - then I subject my faith to a different narrative frame (one that frames "rationality" and "accuracy" in a particular way and privileges them as the primary values). So instead, I am inclined to use Biblical language to defend this position, such as Acts 17:10-12 or 2 Timothy 3:16-17. Of course, one could accuse me of circular reasoning here, and this would be true, but not significant. At the base of every epistemic system is a circle. So, I am inclined to say that in this series at least "faithfulness to scriptures" is a starting point. I am writing this series not to convince people to accept Scriptural authority but to persuade people who already accept that authority to think about this particular set of issues differently.
As to the second criterion, the "impact on gay people," it's somewhat easier for me to provide justification for this because I can point to key Biblical texts without begging the question, such as Matthew 7:15-20. However, you are right to note that assessing the positive or negative impact of an event is not a value-neutral activity. One brings something besides experience to an evaluation when determining whether an event was positive or negative. I don't know if you've seen it yet, but I actually address this in my fourth blog when I discuss the harm that prohibitions against same-gender marriage does to gay people. That concept of harm is derived from the narrative of gender that I present in post #3.
That being said, I do believe there is some room for "common sense" here. Many gay people have been deeply wounded by the church. Our stances on homosexuality have compelled a disturbingly high number of people to attempt suicide, which is not a normal reaction to disagreement or offense at teaching. Leading conservative programs such as Exodus have been shut down because they did not seem to work. Although there are important testimonies of gay conservative Christians who have chosen to value their faith over their sexual desires, there are very few who claim to have been liberated from the oppression of their "sinful desires," no matter how much they work at it. Yes, you can poke and prod at all of these arguments, but taken collectively, I think they amount to evidence that "something is not working," at least for those with the intellectual integrity to admit it.
Dear Brian,
It's Zack. I'm very happy to see you blogging and comend you for taking this topic so seriously! I would like to discuss it with you on a more intimate level than over this blog. Here i want to state what you already know in case a third person reads my comment and questions the logical source - i am writing from an Islamic/Qur'anic perspective and not from a Christian one as i am a Muslim, i.e., one who believes that the Qur'an is the word of God (along with the Torah and Gospels) and that Muhammed (pbuh) is the final prophet and messenger of God from a long line of prophethood that includes Moses (pb) and Jesus (pb).
A few comments that i would like to state in regard to this specific pieace - i've only read the first two of the series and so i hope to continue this dialogue in a more comprehensive fashion once i have a fuller understanding of your ideas.
(1) You cite the verse from the Torah: “You shall not lie with a male as with a woman.” stating that for better or for worse, the you here assumes the reader is a male. Now there is a thing about Semitic languages that makes them very different than most other languages (remember that my knowledge of Arabic is much deeper than that of Hebrew. For this specific fact i checked and found that it is the same in both languages, though). In Hebrew all pronouns are gendered, meaning there is no "gender neutral" pronoun, and this includes the pronouns for "you" meaning that one has to choose to say "you-masc" or "you-fem" when speaking, no matter what. It's not that God is being sexist by automatically assuming that the reader is male, it is just an aspect of the *created* language itself that is being used to express the *uncreated* speech of God. When we read from an English perspective, it surely may seem sexist; however, from a Hebrew (and general Semitic perspective) it is simply not the case.
(2) I always find it interesting when the term homosexual(ity) is used, as it is a very Western-grown concept. So much so that if you were to apply how homosexuality is understood in the Western paradigm on the Islamic (and Middle-Eastern Christian) world of today and to the Biblical world of yesterday, you would find every single person to be considered "gay." Since i think you're going to go into more detail on this later. I will save my comments for later.
Looking forward to more insightful perspectives.
With peace dear friend,
zack
Hi Zack,
It is always good to hear from you. Thank you for your great patience with me, as I realize that it has taken me so long to respond! Regarding the points that you raised:
(1) I always appreciate your linguistic insights, but in this case, I am basing my claim that Leviticus assumes a male audience on context rather than on grammar. Although I concede your point that "you-masc" is often used as a generic second person pronoun that can refer to a man or a woman, this cannot be the case in Leviticus 18:22. Otherwise, the command, "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman," would apply to women as well, which means that the Torah was prohibiting both men and women from lying with men, which we know is not its intended meaning.
(2) I agree with you here. Although same-gender attraction and same-gender sex occur in all human cultures to some extent, the way that we frame it in the West as "homosexuality" is our own invention. It has its roots in a Freudian conception of sexuality, which is both very Western and quite recent in Western history.
I hope to follow up on the rest of your comments by the end of the week!
Hello again Brian,
I was very happy to read your response. I went ahead and found the Hebrew verse for "Leviticus 18:22" ( ואת־זכר לא תשכב משכבי אשה תועבה הוא ) - it's interesting how much of it I can, at least superficially, understand as a result of Arabic. In short, the verse, as I understand, means "And verily a man shall not lie with those who lay with women, it is an abomination." Interestingly, it's not a command in Hebrew at all, and there is no word for "you" in it, and both the words for "men" and "women" are included in the verse, implying that this could very well be interpreted for women in the reverse (i.e., And verily women shall not lie with those who lie with men, it is an abomination), too. Anyway, you'd need to talk with a Hebrew scholar on this.
Regardless, this verse deals with same-sex sexual relations and not really with same-sex emotional connections, both of which the Western world deem to be "homosexuality" - yet, it doesn't really seem as if the Torah (and I know that the Qur'an certainly does not) forbid the latter.
Hope to hear from you soon!
With peace,
zack
Hi Zack,
I appreciate your further research on the topic, but I still think the context pretty clearly indicates that the intended audience is male. The suggestion that it could mean "And verily women shall not lie with those who lie with men" doesn't seem plausible to me, as it requires us to bring in additional wording - "with those who lie with" in order to make the sentence work. Besides that, from what I remember, there seems to be pretty broad consensus that these ancient writings were for the most part written with a male audience in mind, because (among other reasons) men were more likely than women to be taught how to read.
I still agree with you about your larger point, that Western Christians take this verse, which refers to a sexual act that was forbidden in contexts when it violated a gender norm, and it turns it into something more vague and encompassing called "homosexuality."
Dear Brian,
The reason I had to add other words to the Hebrew is because of how Semitic languages and their roots work. Technically "those who lay with" is a single word that would more or less be "layer" (as in one who lays). However, this is self is a compound phrase meaning "layers of women." It makes perfect sense from a Semitic perspective, but sounds very weird in English. Anyway, if this verse were to be a verse of the Qur'an, it would very easily be interpreted as I have mentioned. We could go into much more discussion about this verse, but I'm not qualified to do that, a scholar of Hebrew would be. In any event, even if this specific verse doesn't include same-sex sexual acts by women, it certainly does indicate the prohibition among men.
Yet, you bring up a good point. Islamically all of the previous prophets and messengers (may peace be upon them all) came for their own time and tribe, whereas the God's final prophet and messenger Muhammed (pbuh)came for all of humankind (man and woman), regardless of their tribe, time, or place. Specifically, the fact that there is consensus that this verse was written (I would say revealed) for a male audience based on the reason you mentioned lends evidence to this specific claim.
Yet, I think the main point we should be focusing on is the very idea of homosexuality. We can do that here or in the other post under which I left a comment.
Peace!
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